Thursday 1 February 2018

A-45-year-old man has chronic hepatitis C | PGI Based MCQs and Explanations

A-45-year-old man has chronic hepatitis C. Which of the following features is associated?


A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Porphyria cutaneatarda
C. Wegener granulomatosis
D. Sclerosing cholangitis
E. keratocon junctivitis sicca


Answer. D. Cirrhosis of the liver
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterized by diffuse inflammation and fibrosis of the biliary system with irregular patchy strictures. It can present with jaundice, pruritis, fatigue, and recurrent cholangitis. End-stage liver disease may result in liver transplantation. There is a strong association with inflammatory bowel disease, particularly pan-ulcerative colitis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a strong risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma.
Caroli's disease consists of congenital segmental, saccular dilatations of the intrahepatic bile ducts.
It is associated with stone formation, recurrent bacterial cholangitis, and cholangiocarcinoma.

The parasite clonorchis sinensis can reside in bile ducts for as long as 30 years and can be a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Ascaris lumbricoides may also be a risk factor.

Undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine | PGI Based MCQs and Explanations


Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in: 

A. Whipple’s disease 
B. Amyloidosis 
C. Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease 
D. Vibrio cholerae infection 
E. None of the above






Risk factors for Cholangio carcinoma | PGI Based MCQs and Explanations


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All of the following are risk factors for cholangio carcinoma except:

A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis 
B. Caroli's disease
C. Clonorchissinensis 
D. Cirrhosis of the liver
E. Ascaris lumbricoides


Answer. D. Cirrhosis of the liver
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterized by diffuse inflammation and fibrosis of the biliary system with irregular patchy strictures. It can present with jaundice, pruritis, fatigue, and recurrent cholangitis. End-stage liver disease may result in liver transplantation. There is a strong association with inflammatory bowel disease, particularly pan-ulcerative colitis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a strong risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma.
Caroli's disease consists of congenital segmental, saccular dilatations of the intrahepatic bile ducts.
It is associated with stone formation, recurrent bacterial cholangitis, and cholangiocarcinoma.

The parasite clonorchis sinensis can reside in bile ducts for as long as 30 years and can be a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Ascaris lumbricoides may also be a risk factor.


Nnzymes is/are involved in Neoglucogenesis | PGI Based MCQs and Explanations

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Which of the following enzymes is/are involved in neoglucogenesis all except
A. Phosphoglycerate kinase 
B. Fructose 1, 6-biphosphatase 
C. Phosphoglucomutase 
D. Pyruvate carboxylase 
E. Isomerase



Answer. C. Phosphoglucomutase :
• Phosphoglucomutase is involved in Glycogen metabolism.

• The rest of the enzymes mentioned here are involved in Gluconeogenesis 


Thursday 25 January 2018

Hypoglycemia with elevated insulin levels | PGI Based MCQs and Explanations


A 21-year-old nurse is found to have fasting hypoglycemia with elevated insulin levels. All of the following would be appropriate steps in her further evaluation except: 

A. Measure insulin antibodies.
B. Measure C-peptide levels.
C. Perform a CT scan of the pancreas.
D. Measure plasma or urine sulfonylurea levels.
E. None of the above



Answer. C. Perform a CT scan of the pancreas.
Elevated insulin levels in association with hypoglycemia are indicative of an insulinoma, surrepti­tious insulin, sulfonylurea agents, or circulating insulin antibodies. In surreptitious insulin administra­tion, insulin levels would be elevated and C-peptide levels would be low because exogenous insulin administration suppresses ,B-cell production of insulin. In an insulin-producing tumor or ingestion of a sulfonylurea, both insulin and C peptide would be elevated. Insulin antibodies can cause hypoglyce­mia by binding and then releasing insulin. Insulin antibodies can interfere with the radioimmunoassay and can result in artifactual high insulin values. Insulin antibodies can be a clue to surreptitious insulin administration in a nondiabetic patient. It takes several months for insulin antibodies to develop. High C-peptide levels essentially rule out an exogenous source of insulin. Sulfonylureas can cause elevated insulin levels and elevated C-peptide levels. Ingestion of sulfonylureas can be ruled out by measuring plasma or urine levels of sulfonylureas. A CT scan of the pancreas is of little value because most insulinomas are extremely small and cannot be seen on CT scan. 

The interstitial lung diseases with a predilection | PGI Based MCQs and Explanations


The interstitial lung diseases with a predilection for the upper lung zones include all of the following except-

A. Eosinophilic granuloma (histiocytosis X) 
B. Silicosis
C. Late stages of sarcoidosis
D. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
E. Tuberculosis




Answer. D. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis;
Most interstitial lung diseases have a predilection for the lower lung zones, including idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, there are several diseases that tend to present predominantly in the upper lung zones, including silicosis, berylliosis, coal worker's pneumoconiosis, cystic fibrosis, eosinophilic granuloma, ankylosing spondylitis, nodular rheumatoid arthritis, late stages of sarcoidosis, lymphan­gioleiomyomatosis, mycosis, Mycobacterium, and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) found in AIDS patients who are on inhaled pentamidine prophylaxis. 

Renal physiology | PGI Based MCQs and Explanations


Which of the following is true about Renal physiology?

A. Plasma flow in kidney is 600 ml/min 
B. About 25% of cardiac output is received by kidneys
C.Fluid reabsorption across the proximal tubule is isosmotic and accounts for reabsorption of approximately two-thirds of the filtered Na+ and H2O.
D. The urine in DCT is hyperosmotic 
E. None of the above



Answer. A. Plasma flow in kidney is 600 ml/min ; (B)About 25% of cardiac output is received by kidneys ; (C) Fluid reabsorption across the proximal tubule is isosmotic and accounts for reabsorption of approximately two-thirds of the filtered Na+ and H2O.
• Cardiac output                                5000 ml /min
• Kidney perfusion                             1000 ml/min (20 % of CO)
• Plasma flow in kidneys                   600 ml/min
• GFR                                      120 ml/min (20%-filtr. fraction)
• Final urine                            2000 ml/24 hours, i.e. 1,4 ml/min
• Fluid reabsorption across the proximal tubule is isosmotic and accounts for reabsorption of approximately two-thirds of the filtered Na+ and H2O.
• The major portions of the filtered HCO3-, amino acids, glucose, and phosphate are reabsorbed in the early proximal convoluted tubule. Reabsorption of glucose and amino acids is coupled to Na+ transport and thereby generates a negative potential difference within the tubule lumen. At the same time, HCO3_ is reabsorbed by a non electrogenic mechanism, via H+ secretion. The active transport of these solutes results in trans epithelial concentration and effective osmotic pressure gradients promoting H2O flow across the proximal tubule, into the peritubular capillaries.

• The rise in tubule fluid Cl- concentration is a necessary reciprocal consequence of the decreased luminal HCO3 concentration. The resultant high concentration of Cl_ becomes an important force for the outward passive transport of Cl_ down its concentration gradient, resulting in a lumen-positive potential difference in the late proximal convoluted tubule.


The pars recta of the proximal tubule is capable of active electrogenic transport of Na_ independent of organic solute transport. Under normal conditions, approximately one-third of the glomerular filtrate enters the descending limb of Henle’s loop. This segment is incapable of active outward NaCl transport and is characterized by low permeability to Na_ but high
• H2O permeability, H2O is abstracted passively as the fluid approaches the bend of Henle’s loop.
• Hypertonic fluid with a greater NaCl concentration but lower urea concentration than the surrounding medullary interstitium thus enters the thin ascending limb of Henle, which is largely impermeable to H2O and urea but highly permeable to NaCl. This permits passive outward diffusion of NaCl. Active Na:K:2Cl transport across the water-impermeable thick ascending limb of Henle enables tubule fluid to become dilute and the medullary interstitium hypertonic.
• Irrespective of the final osmolality of the urine, the fluid that enters the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) is always hypoosmotic. This segment exhibits active Na_ reabsorption. All but the terminal portion of the DCT is water-impermeable, even in the presence of arginine vasopressin (AVP).


Monday 25 December 2017

Indication for induction of labor | NEET Based MCQ


Which of the following clinical conditions is not an indication for induction of labor?

A. Intrauterine fetal demise 
B. Severe preeclampsia at 36 weeks
C. Complete placenta previa 
D. Chorioamnionitis


The answer is C. Placenta previa is a contraindication to labor because the placenta is ahead of the presenting part covering the cervix and vaginal delivery would result in hemorrhage.Intrauterine fetal demise, preeclampsia, chorioamnionitis, are all indications to induce labor.


Dunlop's traction | NEET Based MCQ


Dunlop's traction is a type of traction used for correcting 

A. Supracondylar fracture elbow 
B. Cervical spinal injuries 
C. Femoral shaft fractures 
D. Calcaneal fracture


The answer is A.

 Supracondylar fracture elbow Dunlop's traction is used in the management of supra condylar fractures of the humerus in children. The method is particularly useful if flexion causes a circulatory embarrassment. 

Agnes hunt traction | NEET Based MCQ


Agnes hunt traction is used fo correction of 

A. Torticollis 
B. Gunstock deform' 
C. Mild flexion deformity at the hip 
D. Atlanto axial dislocation.


The answer is.C.

Mild flexion deformity at the hip This traction technique is used to correct a mild flexion deformity at the hip joint. In this technique the unaffected hip and knee are flexed and encased in a single hip spica, the affected hip is subjected to skin traction which rests in a Thomas splint. 

M/C site of cholangio CA | NEET Based MCQ


M/C site of cholangio CA:

A. intrahepatic 
B. Distal biliary tract
C. Hilum 
D. Multifoca

The answer is C. Hilum
Risk factor for cholangio carcinoma
·        Primary sclerosing cholangitis
·        Choledochal cyst
·        Ulcerative colitis
·        Clonorchissinensis injection
·       Chronic typhoid carries
2/3rdof cholangio carcinoma are located at hepatic duct bifurcation here they are called as KLATSKIN's tumours
M/C type is adenocarcinoma
Painless jaundice is the most common presentation

Placenta Previa | NEET Based MCQ


Which of the following statements concerning placenta previa is true?

A. Its incidence decreases with maternal age
B. The initial hemorrhage is usually painless and rarely fatal 
C. Its incidence is unaffected by parity
D. Management no longer includes a double setup


The answer is b. The initial hemorrhage in placenta previa is usually painless and rarely fatal. If the fetus is premature and if hemorrhaging is not severe, vaginal examination of a woman suspected of having placenta previa frequently can be delayed until 37 weeks gestation; this delay in the potentially hazardous examination reduces the risk of prematurity, which is often associated with placenta previa. Vaginal examination, when needed to determine whether a low- lying placenta is covering the internal os of the cervix, should be performed in an operating room fully prepared for an emergency cesarean section. Increasing maternal age and multiparity are associated with a higher incidence of placenta previa.


CLIP staging systems | NEET Based MCQ


CLIP staging systems is used for classification for which of the following disease? 

A. CA colon 
B. Hepatoma
C. Wilson's disease
D. Ulcerative colitis



The answer is B. Hepatoma



Table: Clip Staging Systems for Hepatocellular Carcinoma
CLIP Classification

Points


Variables
0
1
2
1.Tumor number
Single
Multiple
-
Hepatic replacement by tumor (%)
<50
<50
>50
2.Child – pugh score
A
B
C
3. Fetoprotein level (ng/ml)
<400
<400
-
4. Portal vein thrombosis (CT)
No
Yes
-
CLIP STAGES (Score = sum of points) : CLIP 0,0 Points; CLIP 1, 1 point ; CLIP 2, 2 points; CLIP 3, 3 Points

Watery Diarrhea | NEET Based MCQ


Which of the following pathogens are associated with watery diarrhea after an incubation period of 8 to 14 hours?

A. Rotavirus and Norwalk virus
B. Shigella and Salmonella
C. S. aureus and Bacillus cereus
D. Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens



The answer is d Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens
Bacillus cereus strains can produce two different toxins: a heat stable toxin that can lead to an illness after 2 to 7 hours and a heat-labile toxin that causes disease manifestations 8 to 14 hours after ingestion. The syndrome of Clostridium perfringens diarrhea usually occurs 8 to 14 hours after ingestion of the preformed toxin.

Thursday 21 December 2017

Fat-soluble vitamins, compared with their water soluble counterparts | NEET Based MCQ


Fat-soluble vitamins, compared with their water soluble counterparts.Generally have a greater potential toxicity for because they are 

A. Administeicd in larger doses 
B. Avidly stored by the body 
C. Capable ot dissolving membrane phospholinids
D. Involved in more essential metabolic pathways


The answer is  B

Fat soluble vitamins, especially A and D, can be stored in massive amounts and hence, have a potential for serious toxicities. Water soluble vitamins are easily excreted by the kidney and accumulation to toxic levels is much less common. Conversely, inadequate dietary intake will lead to manifestations of deficiency relatively faster.

If annual growth rate of population is 1.2% | NEET Based MCQ


If annual growth rate of population is 1.2%, the population is likely to get doubled in:

A. 18—20 years 
B. 20—23 years 
C. 28—35 years 
D. 47 — 50 years


The answer is D

    
Rate
Annual GR %
Yrs required
Stationary
No growth
-
Slow growth
0.5
>139
Moderate growth
0.5-1
139-70
Rapid growth
1-1.5
70-47
Very rapid growth
1.5-2
47-35
Explosive growth
2-2.5
35-28
Explosive growth
3-3.5
23-20
Explosive growth
3.5-4
20-18

Features of splenic rupture on plain X —ray abdomen | NEET Based MCQ


All of the following are features of splenic rupture on plain X —ray abdomen, EXCEPT: 

A. Obliteration of psoas shadow 
B. Obliteration of splenic outline 
C. Obliteration of colonic air bubble 
D. Elevation of the lefthemidiaphragm.


The Answer is C
• Features of splenic rupture on plain X-ray abdomen:
1.     Obliteration of splenic outline.
2.     Obliteration of the psoas shadow.
3.     Fracture oflower ribs ofleft side.
4.     Free fluid between gas-filled intestinal coils.
5.     Elevation of the left hemidiaphragm. Indentation of the gastric air bubble 

5% dextrose in 0.9% saline | NEET Based MCQ


Which of the following is a correct statement regarding 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline? 

A. It contains the same concentration of sodium ions asplasma 
B. It can be given in large quantities without seriously affecting acid-base balance 
C. It is isosmotic with plasma 
D. It may cause a dilutional acidosis


The answer is D. It may cause a dilutional acidosis
Isotonic saline solutions contain 154 meq of both sodium and chloride ions. Each ion is in a substantially higher concentration than is found in the normal serum (Na = 142 meqCl 103 meq. When isotonic solutions are given in large quantities, they overload the kidney's ability to excrete chloride ion, which results in a dilutional acidosis.They also may intensify pre existing acidosis by reducing the base bicarbonate acid ratio in the body Isotonic saline solutions are particularly useful in hyponatremic or hypochloremic states and whenever a tendency to metabolic alkalosis is present, as occurs with significant nasogastric suction losses or vomiting.

Administration of lactated Ringer's solution is appropriate for replacements gastrointestinal losses and correcting extracellular fluid deficits. Containing 130 meq sodium lactated Ringer's is. hyposmolar with respect to sodium and provides approximately 150 mL of free water with each liter given. Although this is ordinarily not a significant load, in some clinical condition - it can be. Lactated Ringer's is sufficiently physiological to enable administration of large amounts without significantly affecting the body's acid-base balance. It is worth noting that both isotonic saline and lactated. Ringer's are acidic with respect to the plasma: 0.9% NaC1/5% dextrose has a pH of 4.5 while lactated Ringer's has a pH of 6.5. 

Wireless capsule endoscopy | NEET Based MCQ


Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition? 

A. Esophageal varices 
B. Gastric carcinoma 
C. Crohn's disease 
D. Ulcerative colitis


The answer is C. Crohn's disease

Wireless capsule endoscopy (WCE) allows direct visualization of the entire small-bowel mucosa. The diagnostic yield of detecting lesions suggestive of active CD is higher with WCE than CT enterography or small-bowel series. WCE cannot be used in the setting of a small-bowel stricture. Capsule retention occurs in <1 % of patients with suspected CD, but retention rates of 4--6% are seen in patients with established CD.